Our Sponsor Sideshow Send us News
Lord of the Rings Tolkien
Search Tolkien
Lord of The RingsTheOneRing.net - Forged By And For Fans Of JRR Tolkien
Lord of The Rings Serving Middle-Earth Since The First Age

Lord of the Rings Movie News - J.R.R. Tolkien

  Main Index   Search Posts   Who's Online   Log in
The One Ring Forums: Tolkien Topics: Reading Room:
tol eressea -- island paradise or purgatorial paradise?
First page Previous page 1 2 3 4 5 Next page Last page  View All

CuriousG
Half-elven


Jul 10 2014, 8:26pm

Post #76 of 107 (4241 views)
Shortcut
Wow, I agree with Maciliel. Mark the calendar! [In reply to] Can't Post

The author is the authority. I really can't see how readers get to dictate to authors what they write. Their the author's words, not ours. We may not like their revisions--that's our right--but authors should have complete freedom of speech/writing. If we hate a sequel or revision, we can walk away in disgust. If an author contradicts themselves, I wish they wouldn't, but then it's up to me as a reader to decide which version makes the most sense from a logic and aesthetic sense.


Maciliel
Valinor


Jul 10 2014, 8:28pm

Post #77 of 107 (4239 views)
Shortcut
what rubbish do you type? [In reply to] Can't Post

 
what rubbish do you type, pray? you +frequently+ agree with me. even when i call you a guttersnipe.


cheers : )

.


aka. fili orc-enshield
+++++++++++++++++++
the scene, as i understand it, is exceptionally well-written. fili (in sort of a callback to the scene with the eagles), calls out "thorRIIIIIIN!!!" just as he sees the pale orc veer in for the kill. he picks up the severed arm of an orc which is lying on the ground, swings it up in desperation, effectively blocking the pale orc's blow. and thus, forever after, fili is known as "fili orc-enshield."

this earns him deep respect from his hard-to-please uncle. as well as a hug. kili wipes his boots on the pale orc's glory box. -- maciliel telpemairo


Elthir
Grey Havens

Jul 10 2014, 10:05pm

Post #78 of 107 (4235 views)
Shortcut
writing [In reply to] Can't Post


Quote
The very act of writing disconnects the author from the work.



But what does that mean as far Tolkien describing history and actions that are intended to be internal?


Quote
In RGEO, there is the translation of the Lament into English (which, as far as I'm aware, is exactly the same as the translation in LotR); that is Tolkien the translator. The note is Tolkien the author explaining the meaning behind the Lament - a meaning that was not in LotR.



This has certainly been your claim throughout, but translator in this context has to do with the revelation of [copies of] The Red Book to the modern reader -- the fictional conceit. Not simply the translator of Elvish or Westron, for it is through translation, along with modern touches from the translator, that every aspect of the story is revealed to a readership.



Quote
The original finished work (LotR) only deals with the specific time and events it covers. An author can write a prequel or a sequel to their book, that won't touch on what they already wrote.



I don't understand that, sorry.


Quote
Much of Tolkien's supplemental writing falls under that category. One of my favorite pieces is Laws and Customs of the Eldar. It gives a lot of information that wasn't hinted at or mentioned in LotR. However, it does have one line which contradicts the internal structure in LotR - that to be a warrior/kill lessens the ability to heal, and so a warrior is not a healer. This is contradicted by the fact that Elrond, Elladan, Elrohir, and Glorfindel all play crucial healing roles in LotR.



Laws And Customs is another example of the conceit: it was imagined to have been written from a mortal perspective, and to have survived in some form, down to the modern translator. Every word was in Westron or Elvish [or within the Elfwine conceit, Old English], rendered in Modern English by JRR Tolkien; like the information, the very tale itself, in The Lord of the Rings.

A difference is, Laws and Customs was not in a finished state, and Tolkien clearly changed his mind with respect to certain aspects of Elven reincarnation for instance [and possibly Elvish naming customs for another example, according to Christopher Tolkien]. It remains a working draft, and thus, in a sense, it only 'contradicts' something in The Lord of the Rings in an arguably unfair sense...

... simply due to the fact that, if Tolkien agreed with you that the healing section would seem like a contradiction, and if he could not explain these characters with respect to the general information from L&C [if also true], then he had every chance to revise L&C accordingly, with no worry of undermining the subcreated world.

Or to say it another way: Elrond's healing skills are an internal fact in the minds of Tolkien's readership. Laws And Customs wasn't yet internal, and was never published in 'final' form by the author himself.

This is different from LeGuin's new Earthsea stories -- which stayed 'internal' [as stories] but opened up new paths about what the reader thought he or she knew about Earthsea.




Quote
The original published work comes first. A prequel or sequel cannot contradict what is in the original. Therefore, the original piece is the first tier, and all else is the second tier.



Generally speaking, I would say of course a sequel can contradict. I suggest that Tolkien was working on publishing purposely contradicting texts due to variant source material. Or The Lord of the Rings contradicts the 'original' Hobbit for example, in some respects.

The measure of purposed contradiction is the author's however, not ours; although granted Tolkien was working with contradictions that he didn't intend with the Hobbit.

But he dealt with them because they were both published by he himself, the subcreator Smile


Quote
You said earlier that RGEO has more weight than SoF because Tolkien published it himself. That is what I disagree with - to say it has more weight means adding in his personal thoughts and actions. It means we're looking at his later intent - the note in RGEO - and saying that it should take precedence over the words in LotR (as you said it should be Galadriel's line to Frodo that we dismiss).



But it doesn't mean that in my opinion. Again what line in RGEO is anything like what Tolkien stated in his revised Foreword for instance? Earlier I asked you why you think RGEO is only Tolkien as author interpreting his own work -- I realize that you think that, but what is it based on, specifically?



Quote
I didn't know about the issue with Galadriel's brother's name. The Hobbit is frankly a messy case, as authors should not publish a revised version of an earlier work...



I would say it differently: when the author/subcreator revised The Hobbit he ran the risk of undermining the Secondary World...

... but inventive creator that Tolkien was, he found a way to keep the conceit in tact: Bilbo's version isn't an author's mistake, not to be ignored with the 'trick' revealed -- Bilbo's early version was still truly part of the Red Book, but he was influenced by the One in his telling of events. And...

'I have in this tale adhered more closely to the actual words and narrative of my original than in the previous selection from the Red Book, The Hobbit. That was drawn from the early chapters, composed originally by Bilbo himself. If 'composed by' is a just word. Bilbo was not assiduous, nor an orderly narrator, and his account is involved and discursive, and sometimes confused: faults that still appear in the Red Book, since the copiers were pious and careful, and altered very little.' JRRT, Foreword [original] The Lord of the Rings

...Tolkien keeps things internal. The art of the subcreator almost 'demands' it Wink

All the more reason for me to think he would not get external with RGEO.


(This post was edited by Elthir on Jul 10 2014, 10:16pm)


CuriousG
Half-elven


Jul 11 2014, 2:20am

Post #79 of 107 (4224 views)
Shortcut
True [In reply to] Can't Post

And when you said I was a misanthropic dunderhead, I pretty much agreed with you then too, but that was only because the Pollantir results overwhelmingly confirmed it.


Elthir
Grey Havens

Jul 11 2014, 1:22pm

Post #80 of 107 (4207 views)
Shortcut
dismissal [In reply to] Can't Post


Quote
(as you said it should be Galadriel's line to Frodo that we dismiss).




To elaborate further, I do not mean that we dismiss Galadriel's statement as in ignore her here, but what we have is a character speaking versus narration of fact [internal fact obviously], with the latter hardly leaving any room for interpretation -- so that the former, the character in the story, is arguably leaving information out or means something behind the words spoken.

All I'm saying is that when you weigh these things, in my opinion sometimes it's easier to question the words of the character, rather than what happened, or 'what is', according to the tale.

For example, some of what Celeborn says in The Lord of the Rings seems to suggest he is a Silvan Elf, a Nandorin Elf who had never been to Beleriand -- and externally this was probably the case at some point in the draft writing [which the reader will not know, even though we now know through Christopher Tolkien] -- but then the Appendices of the first edition flat out state that Celeborn is Sindarin...

... so Celeborn's words are then 'interpreted' in this light, and the idea that seemed to be true is interpreted otherwise. In other words if Celeborn is Sindarin, he only seems to suggest he is Nandorin.

Or to take a different case, the story tells that Gimli slew Orcs in The Departure of Boromir: Legolas relates that 'we', meaning himself and Gimli, have slain many orcs in the woods, and the narrator notes that returning to where Aragorn and Boromir are, Gimli had axe in hand, and Legolas his knife, his arrows spent -- indicating use of weapons against orcs.

But later in the tale Gimli seems to say that he has slain no orcs since Moria.

Which is correct? To my mind it is easier to question Gimli the character's memory here, than imagine the story already related gave such a false impression. Extenally it's very arguably a mistake by Tolkien as author, but for an internal explanation, is anyone really going to try and argue that the reader doesn't acually 'witness' Gimli slaying a single orc, and that Legolas was wrong, and that Gimli had his axe in hand but, unlike Legolas with knife in hand, arrows spent, had not used the axe?

To my mind that would actually seem more strained than to suggest that Gimli, the character, simply forgot or misspoke.

And that is sort of what I mean when we are faced with two author-published accounts where we have an internal character versus rather factual looking information. For myself I can't think of any reasonable way to try and 'explain' the statements in RGEO as meaning anything else but that Galadriel was banned, thus in LOTR, Galadriel 'must' only seem to mean that she can return West.

Moreover, externally I know the matter might have been up in the air when Tolkien wrote The Lord of the Rings, but by 1967 he had apparently decided to reveal the 'truth' of it. Later ideas carry their own weight in my opinion, so I find no great reason not to go with Tolkien's 'intent' here -- but again, this is different from the intent of the author behind the scenes, the author interpreting as author, which 'Death of Author' argues one need not follow.

So I don't know if 'dismiss' is the best word, although I know you need not necessarily mean wholly ignore in any case.


Laineth
Lorien

Jul 12 2014, 2:25am

Post #81 of 107 (4215 views)
Shortcut
Literary Theory [In reply to] Can't Post

I'm talking from the 'Death of the Author' viewpoint - it's completely a personal choice.

There's a lot out there about how art comes from the subconscious, and not just from psychology - writers say their characters speak to them, that an idea just comes to them, that they didn't know about that twist until they have written it, etc.

The amazing George MacDonald said,


Quote
It cannot help having some meaning; if it have proportion and harmony it has vitality, and vitality is truth. The beauty may be plainer in it than the truth, but without the truth the beauty could not be, and the fairytale would give no delight. Everyone, however, who feels the story, will read its meaning after his own nature and development: one man will read one meaning in it, another will read another.

"If so, how am I to assure myself that I am not reading my own meaning into it, but yours out of it?"

Why should you be so assured? It may be better that you should read your meaning into it. That may be a higher operation of your intellect than the mere reading of mine out of it: your meaning may be superior to mine.

"Suppose my child ask me what the fairytale means, what am I to say?"

If you do not know what it means, what is easier than to say so? If you do see a meaning in it, there it is for you to give him. A genuine work of art must mean many things; the truer its art, the more things it will mean. If my drawing, on the other hand, is so far from being a work of art that it needs THIS IS A HORSE written under it, what can it matter that neither you nor your child should know what it means? It is there not so much to convey a meaning as to wake a meaning. If it do not even wake an interest, throw it aside. A meaning may be there, but it is not for you. If, again, you do not know a horse when you see it, the name written under it will not serve you much. At all events, the business of the painter is not to teach zoology.

But indeed your children are not likely to trouble you about the meaning. They find what they are capable of finding, and more would be too much. For my part, I do not write for children, but for the childlike, whether of five, or fifty, or seventy-five.

[cut]

I will go farther.--The best thing you can do for your fellow, next to rousing his conscience, is--not to give him things to think about, but to wake things up that are in him; or say, to make him think things for himself. The best Nature does for us is to work in us such moods in which thoughts of high import arise. Does any aspect of Nature wake but one thought? Does she ever suggest only one definite thing? Does she make any two men in the same place at the same moment think the same thing? Is she therefore a failure, because she is not definite? Is it nothing that she rouses the something deeper than the understanding--the power that underlies thoughts? Does she not set feeling, and so thinking at work? Would it be better that she did this after one fashion and not after many fashions? Nature is mood-engendering, thought-provoking: such ought the sonata, such ought the fairytale to be.

"But a man may then imagine in your work what he pleases, what you never meant!"

Not what he pleases, but what he can. If he be not a true man, he will draw evil out of the best; we need not mind how he treats any work of art! If he be a true man, he will imagine true things; what matter whether I meant them or not? They are there none the less that I cannot claim putting them there! One difference between God's work and man's is, that, while God's work cannot mean more than he meant, man's must mean more than he meant. For in everything that God has made, there is a layer upon layer of ascending significance; also he expresses the same thought in higher and higher kinds of that thought: it is God's things, his embodied thoughts, which alone a man has to use, modified and adapted to his own purposes, for the expression of his thoughts; therefore he cannot help his words and figures falling into such combinations in the mind of another as he had himself not foreseen, so many are the thoughts allied to every other thought, so many are the relations involved in every figure, so many the facts hinted in every symbol. A man may well himself discover truth in what he wrote; for he was dealing all the time things that came from thoughts beyond his own.

[cut]

If a writer's aim be logical conviction, he must spare no logical pains, not merely to be understood, but to escape being misunderstood; where his object is to move by suggestion, to cause to imagine, then let him assail the soul of his reader as the wind assails an aeolian harp. If there be music in my reader, I would gladly wake it.


He's right. The message I get, the interpretation of the characters I take away, is completely subjective. Two people can read the same exact book and have drastically different interpretations and experiences. And indeed, someone can come back to a book years later, and it can have an entirely different meaning. Things can hit them that they didn't notice/grasp before.

I can watch a film, and be fundamentally moved by a scene - and then listen to the commentary and find out that the director and writer had an entirely different intent. Does that change how I felt, seeing that scene? No. I have my own interpretation of the scene and the film, and it's not 'wrong' because it's not what the director consciously intended.

As for revising fiction, I do not know any author that could get away with it today. Literary theory/criticism has embraced a 'Death of the Author' mindset. That doesn't mean everyone has to agree.

In 'Death of the Author', it says, "To give a text an Author is to impose a limit on that text, to furnish it with a final signified, to close the writing."

If we say only the author's thoughts and interpretation is correct, then we close the door on truly learning and reflecting. We cannot have a realization about ourselves and the world if we're focused on having the 'right' interpretation - for we are not truly listening to ourselves or the universe at all. We're trying to be and think like another person, to blindly accept their opinions as 'right' without reflection. Conformity is the greatest killer of creativity,; independent thought must come from an open door.

That being said, all this is about accepting different opinions and interpretations - because it's all subjective. So, go for it! Smile


CuriousG
Half-elven


Jul 12 2014, 3:01am

Post #82 of 107 (4204 views)
Shortcut
Thanks for explaining [In reply to] Can't Post

I wasn't quite sure what was meant before. (And "Death of Author" sounds akin to "Death to the Author!" Smile Which I know you didn't mean, but contributed to my murkiness.)

Certainly everyone has the experience of watching a movie or reading a book at one time and having a fundamentally different reaction to it at another time. Our personal contexts change, and we react to different stimuli, so the meaning we find in things is bound to change. I think everyone can agree on that. (Even dead authors.)


Elthir
Grey Havens

Jul 12 2014, 1:01pm

Post #83 of 107 (4196 views)
Shortcut
death of director [In reply to] Can't Post


Quote
I can watch a film, and be fundamentally moved by a scene - and then listen to the commentary and find out that the director and writer had an entirely different intent. Does that change how I felt, seeing that scene? No. I have my own interpretation of the scene and the film, and it's not 'wrong' because it's not what the director consciously intended.



And that's a perfect example... it is not what happens in the film [the internal story] that Death of Author is about... but an external comment about the intent.

But RGEO is not director commentary. And while you may have your own interpretations of a film scene in which Bilbo participates in a riddle game with Gollum, for example -- even if your interpretations should disagree with what the director or writer 'intended' as far as an interpretation of this encounter goes -- you can yet hardly question the 'intent' of the author or director that Bilbo should participate in a riddle game with Gollum.

To go with the metaphor Smile


Laineth
Lorien

Jul 12 2014, 10:43pm

Post #84 of 107 (4199 views)
Shortcut
Cont. [In reply to] Can't Post

While previous events are going to affect a sequel, in terms of character knowledge (for example), they're not 'showing' the same time period they already wrote. A sequel or a prequel expands on the world that was written, and sometimes the same characters in different times of their lives. They don't go back to the same time; that piece of the puzzle was finished. It's set, for better or for worse.

The Gimli line is a great example of a personal statement contradicting the narrator - another (obvious) one is when Frodo tells Faramir that Gandalf is dead. In both cases, the reader knows that the character isn't right, thanks to the internal narrator. But there is no narration in LotR to contradict Galadriel's statement.

In RGEO, Tolkien says,


Quote
The question Sí man i yulma nin enquantuva? and the question at the end of her song (Vol. I, p. 389), What ship would bear me ever back across so wide a Sea?, refer to the special position of Galadriel. She was the last survivor of the princes and queens who had led the revolting Noldor to exile in Middle-earth. After the overthrow of Morgoth at the end of the First Age a ban was set upon her return, and she had replied proudly that she had no wish to do so. She passed over the Mountains of Eredluin with her husband Celeborn (one of the Sindar) and went to Eregion. But it was impossible for one of the High-Elves to overcome the yearning for the Sea, and the longing to pass over it again to the land of their former bliss. She was now burdened with this desire. In the event, after the fall of Sauron, in reward for all that she had done to oppose him, but above all for her rejection of the Ring when it came within her power, the ban was lifted, and she returned over the Sea, as is told at the end of The Lord of the Rings.


Not only is this written in the much more relaxed style that we see in his Letters, but he says that 'those lines refer to this' and 'as is told' in LotR. The 'this', however, was not in LotR. He is, as the author, later stating the meaning of part of his text, a meaning that was not in the book.

Also, told means, "to give a detailed account of." It's to tell a story. It's essentially saying, 'a detailed account is found in LotR.' LotR, not the Red book. Celeborn's origin is delegated to mere parentheses, as well. The inherent structure of the paragraph is much more 'personal' than the internal narrator.

Compare this to SoF, which merely says, "It was not until two long ages more had passed, when at last all that she had desired in her youth came to her hand, the Ring of Power and the dominion of Middle-earth which she had dreamed, that her wisdom was full grown and she rejected it, and passing the last test departed from Middle-earth for ever."

This we already knew from LotR - she says she 'passed the test', that she had greatly desired the Ring and thought about what she would do; and we see her take ship. The rest of SoF deals with the First Age; it is a mini prequel of info we didn't get in LotR.

Also note how much more formal the style of the writing is here. It's not an explanation, but a story.

However, let's go with the fictional conceit for a moment. In the conceit, he is merely translating the myths and legends. In that sense, both RGEO and SoF are different versions of the legend.

But when we give RGEO more weight because Tolkien himself published it, or we say that he personally never published Laws and Customs, we have broken the conceit; we're back in our world talking about Tolkien-the-author.

Which brings us back to talking about the author's intent, the author's thoughts, the author's opinions. We will never know if Tolkien would have chosen to publish Laws and Customs, or what it would have looked like if he did. To negate issues or questions of what draft/version we do have, means we're trying to conform to the 'author approved' version - a version that never (and will never) happen. It's our own personal guess of his thoughts that we're trying to conform to.

Instead of trying to conform to our guess of his thoughts, it's a lot more liberating to take what we have, and form our own opinions.

As for 'Death of the Author', it's against any later revealing of 'truth'. The 'truth' should be able to be found in the text; to 'clarify' the 'truth' is to go back and meddle with that text. Said text has by then has been disconnected from it's 'author', having gone out to the world and taken on a life of it's own. As Barthes (DoA author) says, "the birth of the reader must be at the cost of the death of the Author."


Laineth
Lorien

Jul 12 2014, 10:46pm

Post #85 of 107 (4187 views)
Shortcut
Thanks! [In reply to] Can't Post

If you want to know more, you can find the entire 'Death of the Author' essay here, and the entire essay by George MacDonald (that I quoted earlier) here.


Elthir
Grey Havens

Jul 13 2014, 6:21am

Post #86 of 107 (4195 views)
Shortcut
the voice of the translator [In reply to] Can't Post


Quote
Not only is this written in the much more relaxed style that we see in his Letters,...



I'm not sure I necessarily agree with this comment about style; I would have to look into it more, but we could also compare RGEO to Tolkien's style in the original Foreword to The Lord of the Rings, for example, or in the Preface to The Adventures of Tom Bombadil...

... notable difference in any case: in various letters Tolkien breaks the conceit, in RGEO he does not. In RGEO various facts about the invented world are stated as if true, without hesitation. Tolkien is acting as if the Valar, and Elves, and the Elvish languages are 'real', giving details about them with an air of certainty -- he never speaks as though they are mere inventions of an author, as he does elsewhere.


Quote
... but he says that 'those lines refer to this' and 'as is told' in LotR. The 'this', however, was not in LotR. He is, as the author, later stating the meaning of part of his text, a meaning that was not in the book.



I don't see why this should matter. New things stated by the translator are quite expected here, just as with Adventures of Tom Bombadil the reader learns new things about Middle-earth.


Quote
Also, told means, "to give a detailed account of." It's to tell a story. It's essentially saying, 'a detailed account is found in LotR.' LotR, not the Red book. Celeborn's origin is delegated to mere parentheses, as well. The inherent structure of the paragraph is much more 'personal' than the internal narrator.




Translators can digress in a parenthetical way Smile

And the translator referencing his translation is fully expected. Have you ever read the original Foreword to The Lord of the Rings [I don't mean that in a mean way, as some have not]? It is about JRRT in parts, and can be about his role with respect to the modern book, as he is the composer of the modern book, and it obviously exists now within the conceit [that being part of the point]...


Quote

(...) 'The tale has been put into its present form in response to the many requests that I have received for further information about the history of the Third Age, and about Hobbits in particular. But since my children and others of their age, who first heard of the finding of the Ring, have grown older with the years, this book speaks more plainly of those darker things which lurked only on the borders of the earlier tale, but which have troubled Middle-earth in all its history. It is, in fact, not a book written for children at all; though many children will, of course, be interested in it, or parts of it, as they still are in the histories and legends of other times (especially in those not specially written for them).

(...)

For if the labour has been long (more than fourteen years), it has been neither orderly nor continuous. But I have not had Bilbo's leisure. Indeed much of that time has contained for me no leisure at all, and more than once for a whole year the dust has gathered on my unfinished pages. I only say this to explain to those who have waited for the book why they have had to wait so long. I have no reason to complain. I am surprised and delighted to find from numerous letters that so many people, both in England and across the Water, share my interest in this almost forgotten history; but it is not yet universally recognized as an important branch of study. It has indeed no obvious practical use, and those who go in for it can hardly expect to be assisted.



Again, that's all within the conceit. The same 'Editor-Tolkien' [as Tom Shippey phrases it] as elsewhere, but still Tolkien talking to a readership, acknowledging his own book and even the work that went into it.


Quote
Compare this to SoF, which merely says, "It was not until two long ages more had passed, when at last all that she had desired in her youth came to her hand, the Ring of Power and the dominion of Middle-earth which she had dreamed, that her wisdom was full grown and she rejected it, and passing the last test departed from Middle-earth for ever."

This we already knew from LotR - she says she 'passed the test', that she had greatly desired the Ring and thought about what she would do; and we see her take ship. The rest of SoF deals with the First Age; it is a mini prequel of info we didn't get in LotR.

Also note how much more formal the style of the writing is here. It's not an explanation, but a story.



Well, these are parts of The Shibboleth of Feanor, yes, but the very first sentence of SOF seems external to my mind, and Tolkien even says at one point 'as reported in The Lord of The Rings' in this text too... but that is really not part of my argument when comparing these texts -- especially the reference to The Lord of the Rings obviously, which could still be in the voice of Tolkien as translator.


Quote
However, let's go with the fictional conceit for a moment. In the conceit, he is merely translating the myths and legends. In that sense, both RGEO and SoF are different versions of the legend.



Not necessarily different internal versions of the legend, since one is merely a draft text.

The concept of Tolkien as editor/translator does not wash away other considerations. If these two are merely different versions to both be considered internal, where does it end when we look at the especially convoluted external variations of Galadriel and Celeborn's history?



Quote
But when we give RGEO more weight because Tolkien himself published it, or we say that he personally never published Laws and Customs, we have broken the conceit; we're back in our world talking about Tolkien-the-author.



When we speak about external considerations we are speaking externally?

Well yes Smile


(This post was edited by Elthir on Jul 13 2014, 6:30am)


Elthir
Grey Havens

Jul 14 2014, 7:23pm

Post #87 of 107 (4173 views)
Shortcut
PS on the translator referencing The Lord of the Rings... [In reply to] Can't Post


Quote
Also, told means, "to give a detailed account of." It's to tell a story. It's essentially saying, 'a detailed account is found in LotR.' LotR, not the Red book.



To add about this point: this [the translator referencing LOTR itself] is found even in The Lord of the Rings Prologue, so not just the original Foreword for example. The Prologue begins... 'This book is largely concerned with Hobbits, and from its pages a reader may discover much of their character and a little of their History. Further information will also be found in the selection from the Red Book of Westmarch that has already been published, under the title of The Hobbit.'

This book is obviously The Lord of the Rings, and The Hobbit is referenced as being already published -- and there are parenthetical digressions in the Prologue too, in longer answer to your remark that in RGEO Celeborn being said to be Sindarin is in a parenthetical digression.

This is all the normal mode of the translator.

But compare Tolkien's answer to Rhona Beare [1958] about Asfaloth in a letter: 'Question 1. I could, I suppose, answer: 'a trick cyclist can ride a bicycle with handle-bars!' Aha! Basically Tolkien could keep things internal here, at least, that is, 'in story', and just explain that Glorfindel can ride with these things [in the following] even if he need not ride with them. But he admits: 'But actually bridle was casually and carelessly used (...) Or rather since bit was added (...) long ago (...) I had not considered the natural ways of Elves with animals. Glorfindel's...'

Tolkien as author, essentially replying 'oops you caught me'.

And the 'magic' is now undermined just a bit, as the author's hand is revealed by an unwanted mistake, so JRRT doesn't end there, as now he wants to fix the problem in order to better keep the conceit in place: 'I will change bridle and bit to headstall.'


Compare however, Tolkien's draft reply to A. C. Nunn [Letters] in later 1958 or early 1959, about the apparent contradiction with Hobbits and gift giving: Tolkien is in full flight here, giving fact after fact and even referencing Gandalf's 'reporter and translator' -- that is, the writer of the book [the person giving lines to Gandalf], and himself as translator, translating those lines.

In this letter Tolkien as translator/editor reveals much new information about Hobbits. And he doesn't break the conceit but merely illustrates now and again, by phrasing, that he, as translator, doesn't know everything; for example he 'imagines' such and such is true, based on what he knows -- which again is still more than the reader in any case: 'Tolkien even refers to his editing material out of the story!'

Of course the difference with RGEO here is that this letter was not published for a readership at large [by Tolkien himself], and I'm not sure it was even sent to A. C. Nunn. That doesn't mean I ignore it as a source, but I do watch out for any contradictions with already published text within Tolkien's explanation...

... oddly enough, since the explanation itself was written to explain away a seeming contradiction!

But still Tolkien doesn't want to introduce a seeming error when explaining something else is not an error Wink


(This post was edited by Elthir on Jul 14 2014, 7:37pm)


Laineth
Lorien

Jul 18 2014, 1:32am

Post #88 of 107 (4150 views)
Shortcut
Cont. [In reply to] Can't Post

No, unfortunately I haven't gotten a chance to read the first edition of LotR, and I forgot about that line in the Prologue.

Galadriel and Celeborn's history is, if we go with the conceit, very realistic. There is no certainty in myth; that's why it's myth instead of history (I know a lot of 'history' isn't necessarily accurate, but we're talking concept wise). So, it's abolutely possible, within the conceit, that there are variations about Celeborn's origin and Galadriel's motivations. The people in the fourth age (or whenever) would have no way of knowing 'the truth', Galadriel and her kin had already gone West.

It matters because LotR was already written. For someone to have a 'complete' understanding of LotR, they shouldn't have to read something else to get it. It's back to the time frame, again. The time frame of LotR was done. Like I said, DoA is against any later revealing of 'truth'. The 'truth' should be able to be found in the text; to 'clarify' the 'truth' is to go back and meddle with that text. Said text has by then has been disconnected from it's 'author', having gone out to the world and taken on a life of it's own.

The bridle issue is one thing, but to meddle with something of this magnitude is another. This is a key philosophical part of Galadriel and those chapters. DoA wise, it is absolutely unacceptable to meddle with such a key part of the text.


Elthir
Grey Havens

Jul 18 2014, 2:25pm

Post #89 of 107 (4147 views)
Shortcut
the story versus the writer [In reply to] Can't Post


Quote
There is no certainty in myth; that's why it's myth instead of history (I know a lot of 'history' isn't necessarily accurate, but we're talking concept wise). So, it's abolutely possible, within the conceit, that there are variations about Celeborn's origin and Galadriel's motivations. The people in the fourth age (or whenever) would have no way of knowing 'the truth', Galadriel and her kin had already gone West.


That's such a huge door to open, however.

Would you argue that everything Tolkien put to paper about Galadriel is really internally true? Tolkien is an artist, and for him the uncertainty of people thinking Galadriel's name contained a tree-word [since it is close to Galadhriel] illustrates this aspect, noting that even this -- which arguably lends itself to internal confusion -- was said to not be confused in Lorien in Galadriel's day.

Tolkien was quite aware that he could, and even should, create purposed confusions. Your claim is true enough in its generality: it's possible to have variations within mythic history.



Quote
It matters because LotR was already written. For someone to have a 'complete' understanding of LotR, they shouldn't have to read something else to get it. It's back to the time frame, again. The time frame of LotR was done. Like I said, DoA is against any later revealing of 'truth'. The 'truth' should be able to be found in the text; to 'clarify' the 'truth' is to go back and meddle with that text. Said text has by then has been disconnected from it's 'author', having gone out to the world and taken on a life of it's own.



I don't see anything, in any of the essays you posted so far, that deals with DOA being against any later revealing of the story or its characters, from an internal perspective. Again, look at Earthsea: is DOA against the later books which give the reader a more complete understanding of LeGuin's World? What it seems to be against [second linked essay] is this 'tyranny' so to speak: 'The image of literature to be found in ordinary culture is tyrannically centred on the author, his person, his life, his tastes, his passions,..'

So these things about LeGuin should not necessarily influence the reader's subjective experience of her earlier or later books about Earthsea. But just as with RGEO, the new books can hardly be 'interpreted' to not give one more knowledge about her world. The reader cannot help but realize that there was more to the world of Earthsea.

Of course, readers and critics of LeGuin are going to know, from what she says as the author, that she was unhappy with the world she originally portrayed with respect to the treatment of women and magic. DOA allows the reader to put that aside, and in my opinion she can't just 'say' that there was really a stronger magical female presence in Earthsea because she wants it to be true, and that the reader should now just 'think so' when reading the story already on bookshelves...

... but if she published more books revealing there were plenty of female mages before, after, or during the adventures of Ged, what now? And can we not learn more about Ged himself, which could further inform us about his earlier adventures even, no matter how we interpret what the later story reveals?

In other words, is not the writer free to write the story, if not free to lord over the interpretation of that story, or have that interpretation be informed, or overly informed, by his or her personal beliefs or passions?



Quote
... This is a key philosophical part of Galadriel and those chapters. DoA wise, it is absolutely unacceptable to meddle with such a key part of the text.



Again I can't find this claim in either DOA essay that you linked to [the second essay is more about the theory behind the very concept of DOA, where one strips away the author completey leaving only language]. I don't see it in the piece you quoted from George MacDonald...

... after which you responded about reader interpretation Smile


Laineth
Lorien

Aug 5 2014, 12:12am

Post #90 of 107 (4116 views)
Shortcut
Cont. [In reply to] Can't Post

Sorry for the lateness of this reply, it took me a while to track down a copy of DoA online.

I would argue, in terms of the conceit, that each is as valid as another - which one is 'true' is unknown.

Here is an online copy of DoA itself. My post with the George MacDonald quote was all about the reader's interpretation being equally valid, but that is not the only part of DoA.

Yes, you are right about LeGuin, if she wrote a sequel or prequel. But RGEO is not a sequel or prequel. A sequel or a prequel expands on the world that was written, and sometimes the same characters in different times of their lives. It doesn't go back to the same time frame.

DoA says,


Quote
We shall never know, for the good reason that writing is the destruction of every voice, of every point of origin. Writing is that neutral, composite, oblique space where our subject slips away, the negative where all identity is lost, starting with the very identity of the body writing.

No doubt it has always been that way. As soon as a fact is narrated no longer with a view to acting directly on reality but intransitively, that is to say, finally outside of any function other than that of the very practice of the symbol itself, this disconnection occurs, the voice loses its origin, the author enters into his own death, writing begins.

[cut]

Linguistically, the author is never more than the instance writing, just as I is nothing other than the instance saying I: language knows a 'subject', not a 'person', and this subject, empty outside of the very enunciation which defines it, suffices to make language 'hold together', suffices, that is to say, to exhaust it.

[cut]

The reader is the space on which all the quotations that make up a writing are inscribed without any of them being lost; a text's unity lies not in its origin but in its destination. Yet this destination cannot any longer be personal: the reader is without history, biography, psychology; he is simply that someone who holds together in a single field all the traces by which the written text is constituted.


(Emphasis in original)

DoA shows that the very act of writing destroys the author. The moment the sentence is down on paper, it is no longer connected to the one who wrote it.

So, LotR, being written and published, is done. It stands on its own. It is no longer in any way connected to Tolkien. For Tolkien to come back later and say, 'this is what Galadriel meant with her songs', he is imposing himself on the text. A text he has no right to touch.

A sequel or prequel doesn't touch the other text. It is the telling of earlier or later events. What we learn can change our perception of the original work, certainly. That in no way changes the original work itself.

Also, the change from bridle and bit to headstall is an editing change. It doesn't change the story or the structure of the book in any way. Therefore, at least to me, I can see the reasoning and accept the change.

But changing Galadriel's motivation/banning her changes her entire character arc, and how she fits into the structure of the text. It calls LotR itself into question. And that is unacceptable.


Elthir
Grey Havens

Aug 6 2014, 5:46pm

Post #91 of 107 (4104 views)
Shortcut
sequels and prequels [In reply to] Can't Post


Quote
I would argue, in terms of the conceit, that each is as valid as another - which one is 'true' is unknown.



Considering my question you are essentially arguing that everything Tolkien ever wrote about Galadriel can be considered internal, all actual variants to be found in the Red Book -- which is surely not the case, and in my opinion which takes no consideration for the art of crafting a tale.

To my mind doing this is constructing a fan-fiction like muddle that the author himself never intended [I mean you can simply choose to approach the works this way, but I take it that you are not seriously suggesting Tolkien intended such an internal confusion here], and calling it artistic because the real world is muddled too.

I would add that this arguably diffuses Tolkien purposed confusion and purposed variation.

He made these choices based on what [he thought] would be both interesting and believabe in a Secondary World. These are also artistic choices of course, made in order to reflect what might be found in a selection of texts and stories that hail from different peoples at different times. Those decisions are a notable part of the difficult craft of good mythmaking in my opinion, and are arguably undermined when lumping in a great measure of what are really only external variations.



Quote

Yes, you are right about LeGuin, if she wrote a sequel or prequel. But RGEO is not a sequel or prequel. A sequel or a prequel expands on the world that was written, and sometimes the same characters in different times of their lives. It doesn't go back to the same time frame.



But where do you get these definitions with these restraints? In any case LeGuins sequels inform the same time frame, as they must, as they reveal the larger world in which the same characters [already read about] were living in.

And what rule is there that a sequel can't go back and follow the same events from a different perspective or character? Moreover, it doesn't matter if RGEO cannot be stamped with 'sequel' [LeGuin was just an example] -- it nonetheless expands upon and explains Middle-earth from the same point of view as the Appendices or Prologue does, and from the same 'translator conceit' of The Lord of the Rings itself.


[snip of DOA text, which was already linked to earlier in the thread]


Quote
DoA shows that the very act of writing destroys the author. The moment the sentence is down on paper, it is no longer connected to the one who wrote it.



Well that's what DOA argues, yes. And yet you believe that Hobbits are short, Ents are tree-like in some measure, Bilbo found a magic ring, Gandalf spoke the Dark Tongue at the Council of Elrond, one of Arwen's brothers is named Elrohir... and so on.


Quote
So, LotR, being written and published, is done. It stands on its own. It is no longer in any way connected to Tolkien.



And you could say the same thing about RGEO [being no longer connected to Tolkien as author]. Thus you believe Hobbits are short even though DOA argues that the author-written, author-published book is no longer connected to Tolkien. But you don't believe that Galadriel has been banned. Why?

Not because the same principle can be applied to RGEO. It can, but so what. The text in RGEO about Galadriel can't be reasonably interpreted otherwise even if you claim RGEO is no longer connected to Tolkien in any way.


Quote
For Tolkien to come back later and say, 'this is what Galadriel meant with her songs', he is imposing himself on the text. A text he has no right to touch.




And here is where you branch away from DOA, as it does not argue that Tolkien has no right to write about his world. And is there anything about sequel or prequel restraints in anything you posted from DOA so far? I don't see why there should be, as the heart of DOA is about stripping the author as author.

Let's say you read a late chapter in The Lord of the Rings or the Appendices which clearly tells you Celeborn is a Sinda, after you had interpreted him as a Nandorin Elf [which could easily happen, actually, given what is said in the chapters of the tale] -- can you reject this later information based on DOA?

Well the author is just as stripped [according to DOA] when you read both descriptions, but the text which only 'seemed' to make Celeborn Nandorin is interpreted in a different light when Celeborn being Sindarin is given as a fact.

So now jump to RGEO. Same thing: strip the author as you like, from both this work and The Lord of the Rings, and the reader still reads that Galadriel was banned in RGEO.

But where does DOA go further, delving into sequels or whatever author-published texts there are for consideration? I don't see anything yet, nor do I yet see a need to. DOA has made its point. The second article makes the point in more detail, and explains the extremity to which the author can be said to be removed. But 'the book' remains for the reader to interpret however.

Of course the DOA article only needs to talk about a single, author-published 'book' to make its point; but I don't see that that alone then means we should plug in The Lord of the Rings and claim that DOA is further stating that nothing in any future publication can explain more about a given world, or that sequels can't deal with the same time frame simply because Tolkien as author has been stripped from the equation...

... rather it should hold that: you, the reader, naturally strip the author again -- and again interpret what the new story tells you.

And then you are met with the fact of Galadriel being banned Smile


(This post was edited by Elthir on Aug 6 2014, 5:59pm)


Elthir
Grey Havens

Aug 6 2014, 7:10pm

Post #92 of 107 (4105 views)
Shortcut
The Shibboleth according to Mr. Noad [In reply to] Can't Post

By the way, I thought our discussion had ended so I wasn't going to post this: but recently I ran across the following in a book called Tolkien's Legendarium, in an essay titled: Of The Construction Of "The Silmarillion" by Carles Noad.

Mr. Noad writes: "The Road Goes Ever On of 1967 cannot be said to add anything to our knowledge of Tolkien's then preferred cosmology, apart possibly from the sentence "The Valar assumed these forms when, after their demiurgc labours...'"

I first note that here, and in the rest of the RGEO commentary, Noad does not mention his characterization of RGEO in the same way as he does for The Shibboleth of Feanor in the very next paragraph, where he writes...

"The essay titled by Christopher Tolkien The Shibboleth of Feanor was written sometime after february 1968 (XII, 331). Since the first words of the primarily linguistic text are "The History of the Eldar is now fixed and the adoption of Sindarin by the Exiled Noldor cannot be altered." and later we have "The use by Galadriel, as reported in The Lord of the Rings," this must be regarded more as Tolkien's notes to himself than as another mythological text (XII, 331, 332). It throws no light on matters cosmological..."

So, Noad's looking for cosmology aside here, I both agree and disagree. Cool

Noad agrees with what I noted earlier about the Shibboleth, that the very first sentence appears to illustrate that it is Tolkien writing as 'author' [or at least he began this way]. He does not say the same about RGEO, but if we take his addition of the second example ['as reported in The Lord of the Rings'] from The Shibboleth, then it too should apply to RGEO I should think.

The problem there is, and why I disagree, is [again] that the translator can surely refer to his own book. And I think it could easily be expected in my opinion; and as I have already shown, Tolkien does refer to 'the modern book' in The Lord of the Rings itself, as well as referring to himself as the modern translator.

So nothing new, but still there's another opinion on The Shibboleth of Feanor... despite that posting it is undermined in that you can arguably cite him for support about RGEO!

Heheh... but Mr. Noad hasn't heard my argument yet about the second example Wink


(This post was edited by Elthir on Aug 6 2014, 7:14pm)


Laineth
Lorien

Sep 1 2014, 3:23am

Post #93 of 107 (4061 views)
Shortcut
Cont. [In reply to] Can't Post

I am sorry for the continued late replies. Most days after work I don't have the energy to do any personal writing or research.

I am not arguing it in terms of Tolkien's thoughts or the real world. Drafts are just drafts. But, if we put ourselves in the conceit, and say Tolkien is merely the translator, then he never drafted anything - he merely translated an already existing record. So we have two records that state two different things. Things like 'when did Celeborn sail' or 'were Idril and Tour granted immortality' are questions Tolkien purposefully didn't answer, which is different. Those seem like deliberate mythmaking to me. All of which is decided, again, outside of the conceit.

The definition of a prequel is "a literary, dramatic, or cinematic work whose narrative takes place before that of a preexisting work or a sequel." The definition of a sequel is "a literary, dramatic, or cinematic work whose narrative continues that of a preexisting work."

The very definition of a sequel or prequel means a different time. While there are no "official rules", there are general rules used by the majority of professionals for 'good' writing. One of which is don't contradict yourself. What you published before is set in stone.


Quote
One thing that beginner film makers learn is that you must stick to the rules of your fictional universe. Sure you make those rules up, but once it’s done it’s done. After you’ve established that some people are born with the ability to control the ‘Force’ you can’t turn it all around an start claiming that it’s really a bunch of microscopic organisms in your bloodstream.

(link)

and:


Quote
Be consistent. Remember all of your characters, including the minor characters, because when you use them again in your sequel you’ll have to depend on those characteristics to figure out how they’ll tie into your new plot! GP Ching, author of The Soulkeepers Series says, “Take notes and write a synopsis even if you hate them. I keep a notebook with details on character eye and hair color, traits, history, family, etc. My only caveat is that characters can and do change. In The Soulkeepers Series, Malini changes significantly in book two. I had to make sure that change followed her into book three and became even more pronounced because of her increased experience level.”

(link)

A sequel can of course go back and replay events if the narration allows for it. I have read some great stories where one scene is told twice, through two different p.o.v's. However, that usually calls for a first-person narration. LotR has a third-person omniscient narration. That's how we can get the history on Isengard, and can get the thoughts of all the characters at different times. Isengard is a great example of the narration giving us information as the objective narrator, and not as a character.

In LotR, Galadriel's statement and her songs are never corrected by the narration. She states that she can go west. A ban is never mentioned by Galadriel, or in an Appendix, or by the all-knowing narrator. The ban is not in LotR.

There are two parts to the problem of RGEO.

1. It is not a sequel or a prequel. As the definitions show, those take place in a different time frame. RGEO says, "'The question Sí man i yulma nin enquantuva? and the question at the end of her song (Vol. I, p. 389), What ship would bear me ever back across so wide a Sea?, refer to the special position of Galadriel."

It clearly states that it is talking about the songs given in LotR.

2. This is where DoA comes in, and it differs from the Celeborn example. With Celeborn, both statements are in the original published text. They are a contradiction/error that was not caught before publication. It is up to the reader to choose which one they prefer.

DoA happens (realistically) when a novel is published. It has gone through its different drafts and revisions, an editor has gone over it, and it is sent into the world to be read. It stands on it's own. This connects to the earlier 'no contradicting' rule - the rules and the objective narration of that time-frame are set in stone. Once it's published, you're done.

To be able to go back and revise/edit an already published book, the author has to have the right to touch or impose his thoughts on the text. According to DoA, the author doesn't have that right anymore. That belonged to the pre-publication stage.

RGEO says that 'Galadriel's songs are talking about this'. It is not a prequel, but an explanation of something in the original - a revision to the already published text. That 'this' is nowhere in the original text. The objective omniscient narrator already spoke by not contradicting Galadriel's statement, or explaining the situation after her songs.


Elthir
Grey Havens

Sep 1 2014, 11:40pm

Post #94 of 107 (4064 views)
Shortcut
no rules [In reply to] Can't Post


Quote
I am not arguing it in terms of Tolkien's thoughts or the real world. Drafts are just drafts. But, if we put ourselves in the conceit, and say Tolkien is merely the translator, then he never drafted anything - he merely translated an already existing record. So we have two records that state two different things.



But you're missing an important distinction here in my opinion... if you flatten things out this much then you have two records about Aragorn too: Strider the West-man, and Trotter the Hobbit. Clearly the second idea is a mere draft, never meant to be internal -- never meant to be part of the conceit.

The conceit does not include eveything Tolkien put to paper.


Quote
Things like 'when did Celeborn sail' or 'were Idril and Tour granted immortality' are questions Tolkien purposefully didn't answer, which is different. Those seem like deliberate mythmaking to me. All of which is decided, again, outside of the conceit.


Some unanswered questions are arguably deliberate yes.


Quote

The very definition of a sequel or prequel means a different time. While there are no "official rules", there are general rules used by the majority of professionals for 'good' writing. One of which is don't contradict yourself. What you published before is set in stone.





'Goodness' is subjective of course. And in any case I still think Tolkien is a great writer despite that he does contradict himself at times, in the author-published corpus.



Quote
A sequel can of course go back and replay events if the narration allows for it. I have read some great stories where one scene is told twice, through two different p.o.v's. However, that usually calls for a first-person narration. LotR has a third-person omniscient narration. (...)



You agree that there are no rules, but yet you are posting opinions here about what is allowed or not -- but none of this has any foundation in The Death of Author in any case, which is my primary objection so far to some of your claims.



Quote
In LotR, Galadriel's statement and her songs are never corrected by the narration. She states that she can go west. A ban is never mentioned by Galadriel, or in an Appendix, or by the all-knowing narrator. The ban is not in LotR.



We have already established that the ban is not there factually. That said, yours is not the only interpretation of The Lord of the Rings text. William Hicklin, for example, has stated on line that he thinks Galadriel's song does fit perfectly with the ban (I might be able to find the thread if you like), that is, he thinks Galadriel's song speaks to a ban, even if it is not certainly, or obviously, stated... obviously as in something like: Galadriel was banned!

As in RGEO Smile



Quote
There are two parts to the problem of RGEO. 1. It is not a sequel or a prequel. As the definitions show, those take place in a different time frame. RGEO says, "'The question Sí man i yulma nin enquantuva? and the question at the end of her song (Vol. I, p. 389), What ship would bear me ever back across so wide a Sea?, refer to the special position of Galadriel." It clearly states that it is talking about the songs given in LotR.




You seem to be suggesting that the definition of sequel means that Tolkien 'cannot' write more about his world -- and in any case the matter at hand is whether DOA does or does not allow something.


Quote
2. This is where DoA comes in, and it differs from the Celeborn example. With Celeborn, both statements are in the original published text. They are a contradiction/error that was not caught before publication. It is up to the reader to choose which one they prefer.

DoA happens (realistically) when a novel is published. It has gone through its different drafts and revisions, an editor has gone over it, and it is sent into the world to be read. It stands on it's own. This connects to the earlier 'no contradicting' rule - the rules and the objective narration of that time-frame are set in stone. Once it's published, you're done.



But here is where you attribute things about DOA that are not [that I see or recall] stated in anything you posted from the articles, and moreover, here you are pointing to a rule as if it has now been established as one. When you say 'this connects' it is you who are doing the connecting in my opinion -- connecting your personal opinions and claims about rules, with DOA.

If DOA realistically happens when something is published [no where does DOA claim that that something must be a novel incidentally], then it realistically happens again when the next thing is published. The author is stripped yet again and the reader is left to interpret the published work(s).


Quote
To be able to go back and revise/edit an already published book, the author has to have the right to touch or impose his thoughts on the text. According to DoA, the author doesn't have that right anymore. That belonged to the pre-publication stage.



I note that where you have quoted sections from articles about DOA, and then commented directly about those citations, I have agreed with your conclusions about the citations -- but where you claim DOA does not allow other things you do not provide any supporting citations from any DOA article.

If Tolkien chooses to publish something that deals with the same world as another book, he can A) write about any time frame, including the same time frame or same scene [no matter the person of the narrative], and can add more facts about his world, and B) he can contradict himself if desired...

... if he chooses to do B he might risk undermining the Secondary World in the mind of the reader, or he might actually purposely contradict an earlier story, especially if he wants to reveal a different perspective.

For myself I have little doubt that JRRT desired to publish two distinct versions of the Drowning of Numenor, one mixed version, one mannish version, purposely contradicting each other at various points... and whether or not they were to be published 'in the same book at the same time' is of no great significance to my mind...

... that is, where does DOA claim that something like this [publishing one book after the other, about the same events but with contradictions], would not be 'allowed'? Of course it would be.


Laineth, you certainly have the right to hold your own opinions about what Tolkien can or cannot do, and yes I'm probably not going to agree with some of these opinions, but my conflict is with your claim that DOA supports these things. I don't yet see any text that supports what you are connecting here, all this stuff about sequels and rules of good writing.



You are raising a lot of rules about the art of writing, and whether or not Tolkien has even [arguably] broken a rule to ban Galadriel is not really the point at hand. In other words, if someone wants to call this decision 'bad writing' that's up to them...

... but that's different from the claim that the concept of Death of Author does not 'allow' Tolkien to reveal that Galadriel's song refers to her ban by the Valar.


(This post was edited by Elthir on Sep 1 2014, 11:53pm)


Elthir
Grey Havens

Sep 2 2014, 12:34am

Post #95 of 107 (4055 views)
Shortcut
PS: DOA specific rules [In reply to] Can't Post

I note that earlier you argued that in RGEO Tolkien was indulging in personal interpretations, in order to argue that DOA prohibits this. I illustrated, however, that RGEO is just as much 'the writer [even if an unknown writer in DOA theory]' as the writer of The Lord of The Rings.


But that argument I understood at least -- with respect to DOA I mean.

This one about sequels and rules about good writing, I don't -- again with respect to DOA I mean. Can you please point to any citations from the DOA texts that support these rather specific claims?


Laineth
Lorien

Sep 2 2014, 4:00am

Post #96 of 107 (4051 views)
Shortcut
Cont. [In reply to] Can't Post

First I just wanted to say thank you for the continued replies. They have been very thought-provoking.

I put the marks around 'good' because it is definitely subjective. Literature and literary criticism itself are completely subjective. It differs from person to person.

When I talk about the 'rules' I'm of course talking from subjective opinion. There is no writing rule you will get sued for it you break it (plagiarism and copyrights excepted).

You're absolutely right. Legally, Tolkien has the right to publish anything he wants. Including things that have contradictions to earlier things. That's when we get into the subjective 'rules' of 'good' writing. I too think that Tolkien was a great writer, even if he used some of my literary pet-peeves.


No, Trotter was never meant to be part of the conceit. Really, what's in the conceit seems to go back to what is canon in Tolkien. It's completely personal. What Tolkien himself considered in the conceit are the things he published, probably. In that you are right.

Another thing is that we have the finished product of those drafts: LotR. While some can (and have) accept details from the drafts that flesh out the story, they are not thought of as the final piece. With pieces like SoF or Laws and Customs, CT gave us a roughly complete draft of something we have never, and will never, have a finished product of. So what do we do with them? It's up to each person to decide.

Galadriel's songs could definitely be argued either way. The big thing for me is her statement of dimishing and going into the West. It doesn't leave any room for the ban.

DoA can of course be applied to anything - a poem, a short story, a film, even a blog post. All are 'published' and sent out into the world in some way.

So DoA says it's published and stripped from it's author. The author is stripped yet again on the next work. I think we can both agree on that.

So if the author has been stripped, how can they go back and change something? It has already been transferred to the hands of the reader.

Legally they of course have the right, just like they have the right to publish contradictory material and state their own opinion. We're back to subjective 'rules'. DoA and the 'no contradicting' are both part of the same subjective field of literary criticism. It's up to the reader to accept or deny the new piece.

To me subjectively, RGEO doesn't trump Galadriel's statement in LotR. LotR is the original and main body of work.


Elthir
Grey Havens

Sep 2 2014, 3:16pm

Post #97 of 107 (4048 views)
Shortcut
stripping the author [In reply to] Can't Post


Quote
First I just wanted to say thank you for the continued replies. They have been very thought-provoking.



Well I often find my replies annoying and silly [perhaps Bracegirdle agrees]... but yes, in any case, thanks for the conversation.

Smile


Quote
When I talk about the 'rules' I'm of course talking from subjective opinion. There is no writing rule you will get sued for it you break it (plagiarism and copyrights excepted). You're absolutely right. Legally, Tolkien has the right to publish anything he wants. Including things that have contradictions to earlier things. That's when we get into the subjective 'rules' of 'good' writing. I too think that Tolkien was a great writer, even if he used some of my literary pet-peeves.



Yay, no rules! And yes the subjective waters about good writing are for a different thread perhaps.



Quote
No, Trotter was never meant to be part of the conceit. Really, what's in the conceit seems to go back to what is canon in Tolkien. It's completely personal. What Tolkien himself considered in the conceit are the things he published, probably. In that you are right.



I agree Wink

And again I stress the art of subcreation as a true art. But I won't again digress into that arena for now.



Quote
DoA can of course be applied to anything - a poem, a short story, a film, even a blog post. All are 'published' and sent out into the world in some way. So DoA says it's published and stripped from it's author. The author is stripped yet again on the next work. I think we can both agree on that.



Yes!


Quote
So if the author has been stripped, how can they go back and change something? It has already been transferred to the hands of the reader.




There are two different animals here.

You yourself already said it: the author is stripped 'yet again on the next work'. But the next work still exists, it 'says what it says', open to interpretation. And what DOA fundamentally says is that, even if Tolkien should explain what he 'meant' by writing a given something, too bad. There is no Tolkien, there is no author, it's just the reader and the written word. From your first link...


Quote

"A narrator should not supply interpretations of his work; otherwise he would not have written a novel, which is a machine for generating interpretations." Umberto Eco, postscript to The Name of the Rose

Death of the Author is a concept from literary criticism which holds that an author's intentions and biographical facts (the author's politics, religion, etc) should hold no weight when coming to an interpretation of his or her writing; that is, that a writer's interpretation of his own work is no more valid than the interpretations of any of the readers.

Intentions are one thing. What was actually accomplished might be something very different.


The logic is fairly simple: Books are meant to be read, not written, and so the ways readers interpret them are more important and "real" than the ways writers write them. There are also the more practical facts that a lot of authors are not available or not willing to comment on their intentions, and even when they are, artists don't always make choices for reasons that make sense or are easily explained to others — or, in some cases, even to themselves.

(...)

It is important to note that, despite the title, Barthes never says that the author's own interpretation is completely unimportant; just that the author's interpretation is only one of many possible interpretations. This also does not necessarily mean that every interpretation is equally valid — an interpretation that is based on a flawed, incomplete and misunderstood reading of the text is always going to be flawed, incomplete and misunderstood no matter how much this essay is raised in protest.



That's it, and it is fairly simple, I agee; and thus the idea only goes so far. And concerning later works, in this essay we have the notion of an author changing the original edition.


Quote
The author's later opinions about their work are a form of criticism and analysis themselves, and therefore are not necessarily consistent with what's written unless the author or publisher actively goes back and changes it (and even then it can be argued that, since the original work still exists, the author has merely created a different version of it).



And this section links to something called the Orwellian retcon, described as...


Quote
A sort of Retcon achieved not by putting out sequels that change the official story, but by actually going back and changing it in the original work, so that subsequent printings of "the same" work are actually different.



Tolkien actually did this, at certain points for the Second Edition of The Lord of the Rings. At least with what I would call minor factual changes anyway [that I recall at the moment]. He added information about the larger world of Middle-earth too.


Also the word 'change' in your resonse is, in my opinion, a bit weighted with respect to this scenario, because one can argue depending upon the weight of the interpretation of either Galadriel's song, or her statement. In other words, if one is convinced that Galadriel cannot go West due to her song, the ban is not so much a 'change' or a contradiction, but a confirmation. If one weights the statement rather, then the ban looks more like a change and a contradiction.

Or let's put it this way: someone who thinks the song equals a ban might agree that Galadriel's earlier statement yet seems to suggest [or can be interpreted to say] she 'can' go West -- but can we not then likewise say that someone who thinks Galadriel's statement equals no ban might also agree that her song seems to suggests [or can be interpreted to say] that she is banned?



Quote


Legally they of course have the right, just like they have the right to publish contradictory material and state their own opinion. We're back to subjective 'rules'. DoA and the 'no contradicting' are both part of the same subjective field of literary criticism. It's up to the reader to accept or deny the new piece.



Well again, I'm looking for excerpts from anything within these DOA articles which claim that -- because the author is stripped as author -- it's up to the reader to accept or deny a new publication about the same world.

DOA rather claims that it's up to the reader to interpret the new text without necessarily having to accept the author's external statements of intent, or interpretations about the new piece. DOA also goes beyond that, in that one person cannot claim to have the 'correct' interpretation simply due to external facts about the author.


Example from The Lord of the Rings: five wizards equals five senses? If you interpret things that way, JRR Tolkien [in a letter] said no, his mind didn't work that way, that's not what he intended. Must you accept that five wizards cannot equal five senses? Options are open to you even if you know the author never intended any such thing...

... but in any case DOA, however, says too bad: Tolkien himself may have said 'no' here, but there is no Tolkien. So then you can say your interpretation of five wizards as five senses is no less valid than another interpretation, even if Tolkien himself said he intended no such thing -- based on DOA theory.

But there are still five wizards in any case Smile

And the real problem with RGEO is that one can hardly deny that Galadriel is banned according to this source, no matter who wrote it. Tolkien would hardly need to say what he intended by writing this section of RGEO.


(This post was edited by Elthir on Sep 2 2014, 3:28pm)


Laineth
Lorien

Sep 12 2014, 9:23pm

Post #98 of 107 (4015 views)
Shortcut
Cont. [In reply to] Can't Post

Galadriel's songs could be justifiably argued either way, I think, as vague as they are. If they were the only part in LotR I wouldn't see the ban as contradictory. Galadriel's statement, on the other hand, is explicit and unchallenged by the narrator. In fact, it's the conclusion to her being tempted by the Ring - instead of ruling over Middle-earth she will just be another nis in the West. That's why I give it more weight.

The accept or deny part comes from the 'no contradicting' instead of DoA. Let me give you a different example.

J.K. Rowling published a new essay/story on her website Pottermore a little while ago. However, it (and almost every other "new" piece on there) is contradicted by what she wrote in the original seven books. It's author published, so she intends for it to be "true". Does the reader accept or deny it? Most of the other HP fans I know disregard contradictory things from Pottermore, and go with what was originally published in the series.


Elthir
Grey Havens

Sep 12 2014, 11:38pm

Post #99 of 107 (4011 views)
Shortcut
Potterless [In reply to] Can't Post


Quote
Galadriel's songs could be justifiably argued either way, I think, as vague as they are. If they were the only part in LotR I wouldn't see the ban as contradictory. Galadriel's statement, on the other hand, is explicit and unchallenged by the narrator. In fact, it's the conclusion to her being tempted by the Ring - instead of ruling over Middle-earth she will just be another nis in the West. That's why I give it more weight.




Okay. And RGEO is explicit... and is the narrator. Characters can say things that can seem to be contradictory, but the narrator has access to more of the legendarium than we do. But we are going in circles here...

... my main point has usually been about whether or not DOA applies.


Quote
The accept or deny part comes from the 'no contradicting' instead of DoA. Let me give you a different example.




Okay you appear to agree that DOA is about reader interpretation free from the author's external interpretations (and free from the author's personal life details necessarily 'intruding' and so on), which is distinct from the act of writing (which of course includes intent), and that there is no 'accepting or denying' a new text based in DOA.



Quote
J.K. Rowling published a new essay/story on her website Pottermore a little while ago. However, it (and almost every other "new" piece on there) is contradicted by what she wrote in the original seven books. It's author published, so she intends for it to be "true". Does the reader accept or deny it? Most of the other HP fans I know disregard contradictory things from Pottermore, and go with what was originally published in the series.




Okay but what is 'accept or deny'? If all you mean is that you can subjectively, for your own reasons, deny something that you feel is contradictory... well of course that's up to you. I may not agree with your reasoning, especially if we are talking about author-published works...

... but that's a different animal once DOA is out of the picture.

I have not read Rowling yet so I can't easily comment, but if she is publishing something for a 'once and future' readership and if she is contradicting things (I can't tell for myself if something necessarily contradicts something else in the sense that there is no other reasonable enough explanation), then my personal reaction so far would be to accept the contradiction or contradictions.

Of course, again, I haven't read either the series or Pottermore...

... but I'm fairly convinced, for example, that Tolkien desired to publish certain things that purposely contradict other things. The Drowning of Anadune for one, with respect to certain ideas included within the tale of Numenor's fall.

Maybe she is doing this on purpose in any case? Again I don't know Cool


(This post was edited by Elthir on Sep 12 2014, 11:48pm)


Laineth
Lorien

Sep 13 2014, 2:22am

Post #100 of 107 (4030 views)
Shortcut
Cont. [In reply to] Can't Post


Quote
Okay you appear to agree that DOA is about reader interpretation free from the author's external interpretations (and free from the author's personal life details necessarily 'intruding' and so on), which is distinct from the act of writing (which of course includes intent), and that there is no 'accepting or denying' a new text based in DOA.


I agree with DoA's role in your example. My point is that writing doesn't include intent, according to DoA. The work stands on it's own. It doesn't matter what the author intended when writing it.

Then the 'no contradicting' rule comes in. Everything in the original is set in stone. The two rules complement each other: it doesn't matter what the author intended or says after the original work is published, and the original is not allowed to be contradicted.

So, in LotR Galadriel can sail. Tolkien changed his mind, and in RGEO Galadriel has a ban. According to the 'rules', the original is given more weight than the new piece.

If we make a distinction that since it's author-published the author intends for it to be true, we've contradicted DoA. We're saying that the author's intention for this outweighs what was actually written in the original.

With JKR, she never tried to write a mythos like Tolkien. With him there may be two contradicting stories, but one will be framed as an inner-myth or opinion (as far as I am aware, I have not read everything yet). With regards to Numenor, Tolkien never published any of them himself, so I don't see how the example helps here.

First page Previous page 1 2 3 4 5 Next page Last page  View All
 
 

Search for (options) Powered by Gossamer Forum v.1.2.3

home | advertising | contact us | back to top | search news | join list | Content Rating

This site is maintained and updated by fans of The Lord of the Rings, and is in no way affiliated with Tolkien Enterprises or the Tolkien Estate. We in no way claim the artwork displayed to be our own. Copyrights and trademarks for the books, films, articles, and other promotional materials are held by their respective owners and their use is allowed under the fair use clause of the Copyright Law. Design and original photography however are copyright © 1999-2012 TheOneRing.net. Binary hosting provided by Nexcess.net

Do not follow this link, or your host will be blocked from this site. This is a spider trap.