Oct 11 2012, 12:54pm
OK so you've probably already heard or thought about the whole "Why does the Mouth of Sauron use Sauron's name when Aragorn said Sauron doesn't permit his name to be spoken?" qualm. Maybe it's just me, but I don't see this as being much of a problem.
A so called "inconsistency"
Christopher Tolkien explained it by saying that maybe Aragorn's info was out of date. If I could speak to Mr. Tolkien (Christopher), part of me would want to thank him for an interesting possible explanation, but part of me would want to yell at him for seeming to explain away a mistake that his dad didn't even commit. The fact that he felt the need to explain it in this manner seems to imply that a mistake was made, either by Tolkien or Aragorn. I don't believe there was one.
How's this possibility folks:
Sauron generally DID NOT permit his name to be spoken. There were exceptions- one of his "top dawgs" the Mouth of Sauron was able to use the name in dealing with the Captains of the West.
Aragorn's statements at the beginning of TTT could have meant: "Sauron wouldn't have an 'S' on any of the gear of his servants, b/c he generally forbids the use of the name," rather than, "No, under no circumstances whatsoever would Sauron ever allow his name to be spoken."
In the movies Elrond, Denethor, Haldir, Galadriel, and Celeborn stink.
(This post was edited by aruman on Oct 11 2012, 12:55pm)