Laineth
Menegroth
Apr 5 2015, 1:08am
Views: 4295
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Sorry if I wasn't clear, I was writing when I should have been sleeping! 
My response was still about not being convinced that Aragorn's "more distant wanderings" (as you said) happened after 2980; and that in fact the story requires the opposite conclusion. Therefore, I said the only way the narrative makes sense if it was they first way, covered in Appendix A under The Stewards: far east/south -> rohan -> gondor -> mordor -> lothlorien.
As for Gilrean, where did you get 2954? I doublechecked Appendix B, and it doesn't give a date. My point was that that quote doesn't prove he went back to the far countries. It just says "the North", ie Arnor. The fact that Aragorn captured Gollum in the Dead Marshes proves that he traveled back secretly to Gondor at least once. That's even without looking at the grammar:
After a few years Gilrean took leave of Elrond and returned to her own people in Eriador, and lived alone; and she seldom saw her son again, for he spent many years in far countries. But on a time, when Aragorn had returned to the North, he came to her, and she said to him before he went:
Her return to their people is put in the same sentence with Aragorn being in far countries. The next sentence has a comma between 'time' and 'when', separating them.
(This post was edited by Laineth on Apr 5 2015, 1:10am)
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