Curious
Gondolin
Aug 5 2009, 8:26pm
Views: 2148
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that the text does not actually say Gandalf tortured Gollum? And that we don't see Gandalf torture anyone else? So maybe my interpretation, if not explicitly supported by the text, at least does not conflict with the text?
I turn, I will agree that your interpretation is a legitimate way of interpreting Tolkien's ambiguity, although I insist it is not the only way to interpret it. And personally, I find it inconsistent with everything Gandalf and Tolkien stood for.
And I apologize for letting my emotions get the best of me. I will agree to disagree if you prefer, and I hope you are taking a well-deserved vacation.
(This post was edited by Curious on Aug 5 2009, 8:35pm)
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